Introduction: We must first of all know that the entire Bible is corrupted and unreliable and is mostly filled with man-made laws and corruption!  GOD Almighty Said: "`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

The Revised Standard Version makes it even clearer: "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie(From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

See Also Deuteronomy 31:25-29 where Moses peace be upon him predicted the corruption/tampering of the Law (Bible) after his death.

The Book of Moses predicted that the Law (Bible) will get corrupted.  The Book of Jeremiah which came approximately 826 years after did indeed confirm this corruption.


After you finish reading this article, please visit: The original Bible was lost!  See comments from the commentary of the NIV Bible (one of the most used Bibles world wide) itself admitting that most of the Books and Gospels of the Bible are corrupted.  No one ever claimed ownership of the current Books and Gospels.  The owners/writers are unknown.    

What does the Bible say about Jesus?   (Answering Trinity and Isaiah 9:6 in particular)

Note: Please see my further responses to Trinity at the bottom of this pageAlso, below, you will see my response to the entire verse of Isaiah 9:6, which Trinitarians use heavily to prove that Jesus is the Creator of the Universe. 

****Please pay close attention to the section where I respond to the "God" title given to Jesus, which I proved that it was also given to others before and after him as well in the Bible.

Most Christians today claim that God Almighty came down to earth in a form of a human being and died for our sins to forgive all of us.  This is a belief that I struggled with for 3 years of my life.  I was between Christianity and Islam not knowing which religion is the right one.  I knew that both can not be true.  One of them had to be false.  You may visit The purpose of this site to learn more about my testimony and why I decided to create this web site.

An exaggerating expression in the Bible:  The Bible contains many verses in it that contain irrational statements.  For instance we read in Matthew 21:21 " Jesus replied, 'I tell you the truth, if you have faith and do not doubt, not only can you do what was done to the fig tree, but also you can say to this mountain, 'Go, throw yourself into the sea,' and it will be done.  If you believe, you will receive whatever you ask for in prayer.'"  I challenge any "faithful" believing Christian to move one brick, not a mountain with his sight or words.  Have any Christian from the time of Jesus till now been able to do it?

Another exaggerating expression is in Mark 16:17-18 "And these signs will accompany those who believe: In my name they will drive out demons; they will speak in new tongues; they will pick up snakes with their hands; and when they drink deadly poison, it will not hurt them at all; they will place their hands on sick people, and they will get well."   Again, I challenge any Christian to allow himself to get bit by a poisonous rattle snake or cobra and survive its venom.

Does this mean no "Christian" is a real Christian?  Did Jesus say that no one will ever be a believer, since they can't lift mountains with their eye sights nor survive deadly poisons?

Does the Bible contain exaggerating expressions in it? and if so, then how can you take the "Trinitarian" verses so literal then?  They too are nothing but exaggerations (as I proved below in this article) that do not prove that Jesus is the Creator of this Universe.

Isaiah 9:6.  "For there has been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us; and the princely rule will come to be upon his shoulder.  And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace."

The word "God" was used numerous times throughout the Bible to show someone's special authority throughout the Old Testament. But the GOD of the Bible is One GOD; see verses Genesis 18:14, Exodus 5:2, 6:3, 15:3, 20:7, 34:6, Leviticus 19:2, Deuteronomy 4:24, 6:5, 10:17, Isaiah 2:6, 16:7, 17:47, Nehemiah 4:14, Psalm 3:8, and Jeremiah 10:10  Where they all talk about Jehovah being the living One God and King.


Now, in Isaiah 9:6 "For there has been a child born to us..............",

Let us look at Isaiah 7:14 "Therefore Jehovah himself will give you men a sign:  Look ! The maiden herself will actually become pregnant, and she is giving birth to a son (Jesus the same person in Isaiah 9:6), and she will certainly call his name Immanuel."  Here in Isaiah 7:14 we see Allah Almighty or Jehovah is speaking clearly to the people of Israel predicting to them the coming of Prophet Jesus peace be upon him.  It doesn't say that "Jehovah" will come down and will be born from that woman.

Also, let us look at Luke 1:34 - 1:35 "But Mary said to the angel: How is this to be, since I am having no intercourse with a man?  In answer the angel said to her:  Holy Spirit will come upon you, and power of the Most High will overshadow you.  For that reason also what is born will be called holy, God's Son." Again, here in this verse we don't see Allah Almighty or Jehovah saying that he will be born from Mary the Virgin.  The angel told her that she will have a miracle by becoming pregnant without intercourse, and she will bring a holy person to life.  

Also, let us look at Mathew 1:18-21 "But the birth of Jesus Christ was in this way.  During the time his mother Mary was promised in marriage to Joseph, and was found to be pregnant by holy spirit before they were united.  How ever, Joseph her husband, because he was righteous and did not want to maker her a public spectacle, intended to divorce her secretly.  But after he had thought these things over, look ! Jehovah's angel appeared to him in a dream, saying:  Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary your wife home, for that which has been begotten in her is by holy spirit.  She will give birth to a son, and you must call his name Jesus for he will save his people from their sins".  This verse clearly doesn't state that Jehovah was going to be born from Mary the Virgin.  It states that someone other than Jehovah who's name will be "Jesus" will be born from her.

Also, let us look at John 1:14 "So the word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth."  Again, this verse clearly states that Jehovah or Allah didn't come in a form of a man.  It was God's son who came to us.  God's only begotten son.  Further down in my paper you will see the real definition of the word "Son" and what it really means.  The word "Son" doesn't mean actual biological son at all.  You will see it further down.

Let us look at Luke 2:11 "Because there was born to you today a Savior, who is Christ (the) Lord, in David's city."   The word "Lord" in here doesn't mean GOD or Allah Almighty at all.  It simply means the master or the leader or the teacher or the most respected or the most admired among his people.  But it certainly doesn't refer to the Creator of this Universe.  That is not what the word Lord means.  We use the word "Lord" a lot for "Drug Lords" or "Market Lords", etc....  They are not GODs.  These Lords are simply powerful people who have a lot of influence on us.


Defining the meaning of the word "Son":

Now in Isaiah 9:6 "....there has been a son given to us,.........",

Now let us look at John 3:16 "For God loved the world so much that he gave his only begotten Son, in order that everyone exercising faith in him might not be destroyed but have everlasting life."  Ironically, Trinitarians from my personal experience with them rely on this verse (John 3:16) very heavily when trying to prove that Allah or Jehovah came down to earth to die for our sins.  They claim that Jesus being God's unique son, makes him the only Son for God, which ultimately lead us to the conclusion that Jehovah is Jesus.

Also, let us look at Hebrews 11:17 "By faith Abraham, when God tested him, offered Isaac as a sacrifice.  He who had received the promises was about to sacrifice his one and only son...."  Abraham had two sons:  Ishmael and Isaac.  Ishmael was 13 years older than Isaac.  Yet we see that "his one and only son" expression was used for Isaac.  The Bible uses expressions like this to magnify people or to glorify someone on a certain occasion.  The Bible in this verse glorifies Isaac for being the chosen sacrifice to God.  So Jesus being God's "only begotten Son" in John 3:16 doesn't make him God nor the only Son of God.

Now, Let us look at Exodus 4:22 "Thus saith Jehovah, Israel is my son, even my firstborn."  Here we see in this verse that Israel is not only God's so called "Son", but also his first born !!.  Does this mean that Jehovah is Israel?  Does it mean that we must worship Israel as Jehovah or Allah?  Of course not !!!

Also, let us look at Jeremiah 31:9 "I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn."  Ephraim in this verse means Israel.  This verse is similar to Exodus 4:22.

Let us also look at Psalm 2:7 "....Jehovah had said onto me (David), thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee."  Here in this verse we see that God not only called David his "Son", but also had made him his begotten Son  !!!.


Swapping Game:  Let us play a little swapping game between the verses of John 3:16, Exodus 4:22, Jeremiah 31:9, and Psalm 2:7.  Let us take "his only begotten Son" from John 3:16 and replace it in Exodus 4:22, and let us take "even my firstborn" from Exodus 4:22 and replace it in John 3:16.  

Do you honestly think that the little swap game above would change anything in the meaning?  Would you still have believed in Jesus as Jehovah if the above swap was true?  

The above swap proves that the word "Son" doesn't mean actual biological "Son" at all.   It just means that Jesus is a "Son" of Jehovah in a way that Jehovah loved him so much that he chose him to be his messenger to the people of Israel.


Another Swapping Game:  Let us replace "I begotten thee" from Psalm 2:7, and replace it in John 3:16, and take "his only begotten Son" from John 3:16 and replace it in Psalm 2:7

Again, do you honestly think that the little swap game above would change anything in the meaning?  Would you still have believed in Jesus as Jehovah if the above swap was true?  

Clearly, the above swap proves that the word "Son" doesn't mean actual biological "Son" at all.   It just means that Jesus is a "Son" of Jehovah in a way that Jehovah loved him so much that he chose him to be his messenger to the people of Israel.


Jesus worshiping his God:

Let us look at Luke 5:16 "And he (Jesus) withdrew himself into the wilderness and prayed to his God."  Here we see that Jesus had a God, a supreme God, who is higher than him and stronger than him.  Jesus was God's servant and he prayed to God so God would strengthen him more and reinforce him with patience and desire to continue his mission in spreading the word of God Almighty.

Also, let us look at Matthew 26:39 "And going a little way forward, he (Jesus) fell upon his face, praying and saying 'My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass away from me.  Yet, not as I will, but as you will.' "  Here in this verse we see two things:   (1) Jesus bowed down on his face and prayed in submission to his GOD in obedience.   (2) Jesus was begging his GOD to let the cup pass away from him.  Jesus did not have the power to will it for himself and make the cup pass away from Jesus.  GOD had to do it for Jesus !.  How can Jesus be the Creator of this Universe, the all knowing, most powerful??!!

Also, let us look at Matthew 26:42 "Again, for the second time, he (Jesus) went off and prayed, saying: 'My Father, if it is not possible for this to pass away except I drink it, let your will take place.'"  My comments on this verse are similar to the above one (Matthew 26:39), Jesus begged his GOD to will what Jesus wanted to happen.  Jesus couldn't will it by himself.

Also, let us look at Matthew 26:44 "So leaving them, he (Jesus) went off and prayed for the third time, saying once more the same word."  Here we see that Jesus for the third time begged his GOD to will what Jesus wished for in Matthew 26:39 above.  How can Jesus be the Creator of this Universe if he (1) begs, and (2) lacks power?!


Now in Isaiah 9:6 "......and the princely rule will come to be upon his shoulder......",

Let us look at Luke 22:29 "and I make a covenant with you, just as my Father (my GOD) has made a covenant with me, for a kingdom,".  Here we see that Jesus came down to serve Jehovah's Kingdom.  It wasn't Jehovah who was in Jesus in this verse.  It was Jesus the Messenger of God who was serving his God's Kingdom, Jehovah's Kingdom.

Let us look at  2 Samuel 7:13 -14 "He (David) is the one that will build a house for My Name (Jehovah's Name), and I shall certainly establish the throne of his kingdom firmly to time indefinite.  I myself shall become his Father (His Guardian or Inspirer), and he himself will become my son.  When he does wrong, I will also reprove him with the rod of men and with the strokes of the sons of Adam."  In this verse, we see that David who came before Jesus had done the same thing to God as Jesus did.  David was a king, leader, and a messenger from God.  It doesn't say that Jehovah is in David, nor it says that David is Jehovah.  The same way we interpret 2 Samuel 7:13-14  and all the verses about David should be the same way we should interpret the Verses that talk about Jesus.  Jesus is not Jehovah, nor ever was.

Let us look at Revelation 19:16 "And upon his (Jesus) outer garment, even upon his thigh, he has a name written, King of kings and Lord of lords."  Here we see that Jesus was called the King of all Kings and the Lord (leader or master) of all Lords (masters).  It doesn't prove anything about Jesus being Jehovah, nor ever talks about Jehovah.  

Let us look at Mathew 28:18-20 "And Jesus approached and spoke to them, saying:  All authority (from GOD) has been given me in heaven and on the earth.  Go therefore and make disciples of people of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father (God), the Son (Jesus), and the Holy Spirit (GOD's inspiration), teaching them to observe all the things I have commanded you.  And look! I am with you all the days until the conclusion of the system of things."  Here in this verse we have few points that Trinitarians often confuse.  Trinitarians use this verse very heavily to try to prove that Jehovah or Allah is 3 in 1, meaning that GOD is the father + Jesus + The Holy Spirit.  

This claim is a false one, because when Jesus said in Mathew 28:18-20 ".....All authority (from GOD) has been give to me in heaven and on the earth...." it clearly shows that Jesus had a stronger or higher power over him.  One has to ask himself a very simple question here:  How can GOD say that GOD had given him authority?  It doesn't make any sense, does it?

Also, when Jesus in Mathew 28:18-20 said ".....baptizing them in the name of the Father (God), the Son (Jesus), and the Holy Spirit (GOD'S inspiration)...." he didn't say go and baptize people in my name (Jehovah).  He mentioned his GOD first, then himself (GOD'S messenger), and in GOD's inspiration (The Holy Spirit).  This clearly disproves the claim that GOD IS THREE = GOD+JESUS+HOLY SPIRIT.  

Also, when Jesus in Mathew 28:18-20 said "......teaching them to observe all the things I have commanded you....." well of course Jesus's disciples needed to teach people from what Jesus taught them !!!.  Jesus was GOD's messenger, and God's favorite "Son" at that time.  GOD had inspired Jesus with all the teachings that people need to go and preach worshiping Jehovah, love and harmony to all people.  

Also, when Jesus said in Mathew 28:18-20 ".....And look! I am with you all the days until the conclusion of the system of things." he (Jesus) was referring to the Holy Spirit that GOD will send to Jesus's disciples through either Jesus's inspiration or GOD's inspiration to them.  This also doesn't prove that Jesus is Jehovah or Allah.  We must keep in mind that Jesus was not a normal human being.  He was the King of all Kings and the Lord of all Lords as stated above in (Revelation 19:16 .  He had power from GOD, and he was GOD's favorite "Son" at that time.  Jesus had the power to inspire his followers through GOD's Power, because GOD allowed him to do that.


Further more about Matthew 28:18-20 from

Question: Doesn't the command by Matthew's Jesus to, "Go therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit" (Matthew 28:19) show the existence of a triune deity.

Answer: Matthew 28:19 states: "Go therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit." Although the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are grouped together, this verse does not prove the existence of a triune deity. The verse merely indicates the author's belief that they are to be mentioned together during baptism. Each is thought to have a function in the initiation of the believer during the baptism ritual. Yet no doctrine of coequality among them is promulgated in this verse.
In the early period baptism was simply in "Christ" (Galatians 3:27) or in the name of Jesus (1 Corinthians 1:13, Acts 8:16, 19:5). The text in Matthew represents a later stage of development, but is still not trinitarian in meaning. The doctrine of the trinity is a still later development.


Let us look at Hebrew 5:7 "During the days of Jesus' life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with loud cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission."  Here we see Jesus prayed to God be saved and God HEARD ( in any religious speech the HEARD means that the person has been answer with the prayer) him.

Let us look at Mark 12:29 "The first of all the commandments is, Here, O Israel:  The Lord our God is one Lord."  If trinity was a valid belief, then Mark 12:29 would have said "God is three in one".

Let us also look at Acts 3:22 "In fact, Moses said:  Jehovah will raise up for you from among your brothers a prophet like me.  You must listen to him according to all the things he speaks to you."  Here we see Prophet Moses peace be upon him predicting the coming Prophet Jesus peace be upon him.  Acts 3:22 didn't say that Jehovah will come down to earth in a form of a human being.  Moses said in Acts 3:22 ".....a prophet like me.....", which means that Jesus will be a human being like Moses.  If Jesus was Jehovah or Allah himself, then Moses wouldn't have said ".....a prophet like me.....".

Let us look at Mathew 3:16 "After being baptized Jesus immediately came up from the water; and, look! the heavens were opened up, and he saw descending like a dove God's spirit coming upon him.  Look! Also, there was a voice from the heavens that said: This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved."  Here we see how much GOD loved Jesus and how much he admired him.  Jehovah or Allah in Mathew 3:16 was clearly greeting his messenger (Jesus), and telling him how much he loves him.


The devil tempting Jesus 3 times:

In Mathew 4:1-2 "Then Jesus was led by the spirit up into the wilderness to be tempted by the Devil.  After he had fasted forty days and forty nights, then he felt hungry."  One has to ask himself a very simple question here:  Why would Jesus allow the Devil to lead him to the wilderness to try to tempt him if he were God?  This clearly proves that Jesus is not and can not be God!!!.

In Mathew 4:5-6 "The the devil took him along into the holy city, and he stationed him upon the battlement of the temple and said to him:  If you are a son of God, hurl yourself down; for it is written He (Jehovah) will give his angels a charge concerning you, and they will carry you on their hands, that you may at no time strike your foot against a stone.  Jesus said to him:  Again it is written, you must not put Jehovah your God to the test."  Here we see that the devil for the second time tried to tempt Jesus and have him do things that would make him doubt his GOD Jehovah or Allah.  Jesus replied to him by telling him that no matter what you try to do, you will never be able to test your GOD (your creator).  The devil was trying to have Jehovah or Allah send angels to Jesus, and Jesus made it clear to the devil that no one can put GOD to the test, and no one can have GOD do anything without the will of GOD.  The devil will never be able to have Jehovah or Allah send down his angels if Jehovah didn't will it.

In Mathew 4:8-10 "Again the devil took him along to an unusually high mountain, and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their glory, and he said to him:  All these things I will give you if you fall down and do an act of worship to me.  Then Jesus said to him:  God away Satan! For it is written, It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone, you must render sacred service."  Here we clearly see that after the devil offered Jesus the world, Jesus told him to go away and to go and worship Allah Almighty or Jehovah.  One has to ask himself a very simple question here:  If Jesus was Jehovah, then how come he didn't tell Satan in Mathew 4:8-10 "It is me whom you must worship" ?  Jesus told Satan "It is Jehovah your God you must worship", which clearly shows that Jesus is not Jehovah!!!.


Now in Isaiah 9:6 "......And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor......"

Let us look at Isaiah 11:2-3 "And upon him the spirit of Jehovah must settle down, the spirit of wisdom and of understanding, the spirit of counselor and of mightiness, the spirit of knowledge and of the fear of Jehovah; and there will be enjoyment by him in the fear of Jehovah."  In this verse, we clearly see that Jehovah or Allah Almighty will be with Jesus to guide him, inspire him, and to educate him.  That spirit is called the spirit of Mightiness, where God had blessed his messenger Jesus peace be upon him with that holy spirit.  This verse clearly shows that Jesus is not Jehovah.  In Isaiah 11:2 -3 we see GOD Almighty had defined for the meaning of spirit of Jehovah.  It means the spirit knowledge and knowing the full truth, and the spirit of leading people to the path of GOD, and finally the spirit of fearing Jehovah, where Jesus must fear Jehovah and do only what Jehovah command him to do because Jesus is Jehovah's messenger and not Jehovah himself.  

Let us look at Isaiah 42:1 "Look! My servant (Jesus), on whom I keep fast hold! My chosen one, whom my soul has approved! I have put my spirit in him.  Justice to the nations is what he will bring forth." Here we see clearly that Jehovah or Allah Almighty had called Jesus his servant.  His chosen servant, whom GOD had put the spirit of guidance (as shown in the previous verse Isaiah 11:2-3) into him to guide him and to teach him the truth so he can deliver it to his people, the people of Israel and to nations that will receive his message.  God was talking about Jesus as his servant and not as himself.

Let us look at Isaiah 52:13 "Look! My servant (Jesus) will act with insight (inspiration from GOD).  He will be in high station and will certainly be elevated and exalted very much."  Here again, we see GOD talking about Jesus as her servant and not as himself, and is promising that his servant (Jesus) will be well respected and well admired.  GOD will inspire Jesus all the way throughout his ministry so they can learn the full truth.  It doesn't prove anything about Jesus being GOD himself !!!.

Let us look at Mathew 12:18 "Look! My servant (Jesus) whom I chose, my beloved, whom my soul approved!  I will put my spirit upon him, and what justice is he will make clear to the nations."  This verse is similar to Isaiah 42:1 where Allah Almighty or Jehovah calls Jesus his servant and not himself, and promises to inspire him all the way through his ministry.  Let us see the many others who carried GOD's Spirit in them in the Bible:


Others who carried GOD's Spirit in them:

Numbers 24:2 "When Balaam looked out and saw Israel encamped tribe by tribe, the Spirit of God came upon him"

Judges 3:10 "The Spirit of the LORD came upon him, so that he became Israel's judge and went to war. The LORD gave Cushan-Rishathaim king of Aram into
the hands of Othniel, who overpowered him."

Judges 6:34 "Then the Spirit of the LORD came upon Gideon, and he blew a trumpet, summoning the Abiezrites to follow him."

Judges 11:29 "Then the Spirit of the LORD came upon Jephthah. He crossed Gilead and Manasseh, passed through Mizpah of Gilead, and from there he advanced against the Ammonites."

Judges 14:6 "The Spirit of the LORD came upon him in power so that he tore the lion apart with his bare hands as he might have torn a young goat. But he told
neither his father nor his mother what he had done."

Judges 14:19 "Then the Spirit of the LORD came upon him in power. He went down to Ashkelon, struck down thirty of their men, stripped them of their belongings and gave their clothes to those who had explained the riddle. Burning with anger, he went up to his father's house."

Judges 15:14 "As he approached Lehi, the Philistines came toward him shouting. The Spirit of the LORD came upon him in power. The ropes on his arms became like charred flax, and the bindings dropped from his hands."

1 Samuel 10:6 "The Spirit of the LORD will come upon you in power, and you will prophesy with them; and you will be changed into a different person."

1 Samuel 10:10 "When they arrived at Gibeah, a procession of prophets met him; the Spirit of God came upon him in power, and he joined in their prophesying."

1 Samuel 11:6 "When Saul heard their words, the Spirit of God came upon him in power, and he burned with anger."

1 Samuel 16:13 "So Samuel took the horn of oil and anointed him in the presence of his brothers, and from that day on the Spirit of the LORD came upon David in power. Samuel then went to Ramah."

1 Samuel 16:16 "Let our lord command his servants here to search for someone who can play the harp. He will play when the evil spirit from God comes upon you, and you will feel better."   GOD HAS AN EVIL SPIRIT??!!

1 Samuel 16:23 "Whenever the spirit from God came upon Saul, David would take his harp and play. Then relief would come to Saul; he would feel better, and the evil spirit would leave him."

1 Samuel 18:10 "The next day an evil spirit from God came forcefully upon Saul. He was prophesying in his house, while David was playing the harp, as he usually did. Saul had a spear in his hand..."  ANOTHER EVIL SPIRIT FROM GOD??!!

1 Samuel 19:9 "But an evil spirit from the LORD came upon Saul as he was sitting in his house with his spear in his hand. While David was playing the harp,..."  ANOTHER EVIL SPIRIT FROM GOD??!!

1 Kings 22:23 "God sent LYING SPIRITS to lie to people"  Does GOD lie?!

1 Samuel 19:20 "so he sent men to capture him. But when they saw a group of prophets prophesying, with Samuel standing there as their leader, the Spirit of God came upon Saul's men and they also prophesied."

1 Samuel 19:23 "So Saul went to Naioth at Ramah. But the Spirit of God came even upon him, and he walked along prophesying until he came to Naioth."

2 Chronicles 15:1 "The Spirit of God came upon Azariah son of Oded."

Ezekiel 11:5 "Then the Spirit of the LORD came upon me, and he told me to say: "This is what the LORD says: That is what you are saying, O house of Israel, but I know what is going through your mind."

Ezekiel 37:1 "The hand of the LORD was upon me, and he brought me out by the Spirit of the LORD and set me in the middle of a valley; it was full of bones."

Luke 1:35 "The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you (Mary), and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God."

Luke 2:25 "Now there was a man in Jerusalem called Simeon, who was righteous and devout. He was waiting for the consolation of Israel, and the Holy Spirit was upon him."

Why do we have to consider Jesus as the Creator of this Universe or someone who is equal to GOD just because GOD had put His spirit in Jesus, and not consider the many others who carried GOD's spirit above as equal to GOD?


Now, let us look at John 4:34 "Jesus said to them:  My food is for me to do the will of him (Jehovah) that sent me and to finish his work." Here we see clearly that Jesus told his followers that GOD is higher than him, and Jesus can only do things within Jehovah's will.  Also Jesus said that his mission is to finish the work of Jehovah that was assigned to Jesus peace be upon him.

Let us look at John 5:30 "I cannot do a single thing of my own initiative; just as I hear, I judge; and the judgment that I render is righteous, because I seek, not my own will, but the will of him that sent me."  Here we see two things in this verse:  First, Jesus recognized, admitted and preached to his followers that his is nothing special nor have any power in him.  Second, Jesus does nothing of his own will; he only does the will of GOD who sent him and who inspires him.

Let us look at John 5:31 "If I  (Jesus) alone bear witness about myself, my witness is not true.  There is another that bears witness about me, and I know that the witness which he bears about me is true."  Here we also see that Jesus admits and preaches to his followers that he is not powerful.  The only powerful is GOD, his GOD.

Let us look at John 5:36-38 "But I have the witness greater than that of John, for the very works that my Father (my GOD) assigned me to accomplish, the works themselves that I am doing, bear witness about me that the Father (GOD) dispatched me.  Also, the Father (GOD) who sent me has himself borne witness about me.  You have neither heard his voice at any time nor ever seen his figure; and you do not have his word remaining in you, because the very one whom he dispatched you do not believe."  Personally speaking, I never had a single Trinitarian explain this verse to me directly.  They always give me indirect answers that have nothing to do with this verse (John 5:36-38).  Here we see Jesus again clearly defines GOD as greater than him, and he told his followers that they have never seen GOD nor ever heard his voice.  I don't know what more Allah Almighty and Jesus need to say to prove to Trinitarians that GOD and Jesus are two separate beings !!!.

Let us look at Deuteronomy 4:12 "And GOD began to speak to you out of the middle of the fire.  The sound of words was what were you hearing, but no form were you seeing nothing but a voice."  This verse is another proof that no one ever seen GOD in any form.


Now in Isaiah 9:6 "......Mighty God,....."

Does the Bible in the Old Testament confirm trinity?

The "God" title in Isaiah 9:6 was given to others

It is quite unfortunate that in the old Jewish culture, people used to be named "Godly" names.  This is quite misleading and deceiving to Christians when they try to define the deity of Jesus.

Many people in the Jewish old culture were called "God" before Jesus' existence on earth.  The following translations were verified by

1- Ezekiel means "Strong God".  It also means "Yahweh is Strong God".

2- Israel means "Challenge God".  It also means "Defeat God".

3- Gabriel also means "Strong God".

4- Isaiah or Jesaiah means "Salvation from Yahweh".  It could also mean "Salvation".

5- Joshua means "Yahweh Saves".

6- Elli, which is a common name for men before and after Jesus, means "God" or "Yahweh".

7- Immanuel, which is another name for Jesus, means "With us is God".  This name is also common for men before and after Jesus.

8- Elihu means "My God is He". 

9- Gedaliah means "Jehovah is Great".  People before and after Jesus are given this name.  See 2 Kings 25:22-24.

10- Eliadah or Eliada means "God knows". 

11- Eliab means "my God is Father".

12- Elzaphan means "God is Protector"

13- Eliakim means "God raises".

14- Elisha means "God is Salvation". 

15- Eleazar means "God has helped"

16- Judah or Yahawdah means "Praised".  It generally means "Praised by Yahweh".

17- Hashabiah means "Jehovah has considered".

18- Mattithiah = "Gift of Jehovah".

19- Michael (nick name "Mike") means "who is like God".  Yet, non is like Him, the Almighty.  See Exodus 8:10.

20- Jesus means "Salvation".  It doesn't mean "God Saves" as Christians claim.  Jesus (Yeshua) means in Hebrew "salvation" and not "God saves".  Yud Shin Waw Ain - this name doesn't include the word "God".

Joshua (Yehoshya) - Yod Hey - Waw Shin Ain
Isaya (Yeshayah) - Yod Shin Ain - Yod Hey .

These two names are combination of Yod, Shin, Ain - salvation and Yod, Hey - Yahwe.

Yosh Hey (Yah) is common short from Yahwe, for example Alleluia comes from "Halelu Yah" - "Glorify Yahwe".


I confirmed the correctness of the above translations with the Jewish Sabbath Temple. See also how the Christian Translators are in error regarding some of the translations of the "Godly" names that were fixed above.


In the above examples, we clearly see that the old Jewish culture gave "Godly" titles to people who are not in anyway divine.

Notice that in Isaiah 9:6, it clearly says "and his NAME shall be...."  This clearly proves that "Mighty God" is just a name given to the coming Prophet (Jesus).  Since this is just a name, this also clearly proves other people in the old Jewish culture were named that name before, even if they're not mentioned in the current Bible.

Have Isaiah 9:6 said "and he will be God Almighty Himself" or "and he will be the God Almighty" then this would be different, because we now would be talking about not just a NAME given to someone, but rather GOD Almighty Himself.

Important Note: There is not a single Verse in the New Testament where Jesus was called directly or named directly "Mighty God" or even "God".  Notice in Isaiah 9:6 it clearly says "and his name shall be...."  Jesus was called "Son of GOD" as many others in the Bible were called Sons of GOD as shown below in this article and as was shown above also in this article, but he never even once was addressed as "Mighty God" or "God", nor ever claimed to be "Mighty God" or "God". 

The Jews believe that Isaiah 9:6 was referring to somebody else, other than Jesus.  The Book of Isaiah which obviously contains Isaiah 9:6 came 700 before the birth of Jesus.  The Jews had absolutely no problem calling somebody who came 700 years before Jesus "El Gibor (Mighty God)".  That person's name is Hezekiah.  The Jews believe that Isaiah 9:6 is referring to Hezekiah and not Jesus, and they did indeed address Hezekiah as "Mighty God".  This proves that many people before Jesus were named even at birth "El Gibor (Mighty God)", just like people were also named "Ezekiel (Strong God)", "Elli (God)", "Gabriel (Strong God)", etc...


The "Mighty God" translation

"Mighty God" in Isaiah 9:6 is "El Gibor".  This is not exactly "Mighty God", but close.  "Strong" is more correct (but it is different from strong of "hazak").  Here both El and Gibor are nouns - this is short full spell is "El Hu Gibor".

Anyway "El Gibor" and "Gabriel" are same thing. They both mean "Strong God". "Gabriel" is an angel's name in the Bible.

The word "Gibor" in Isaiah 9:6 and the word "Gibor" of Gabriel have exactly the same root, and they are both the same word.  The word itself can also be translated as "Man of God".

By the way, "EL" can also mean "Judge".  So "El Gibor" can also be translated as "Strong Judge". 

The "Mighty God" translation is just one possibility.  This type of differences in translation exists throughout the Hebrew language, where words' meaning change depending on the sentence.  That is why there is no one single solid Bible Translation!.  Theologians have difficulties agreeing on some key issues in translations.  That's why we see so many different Bibles with so many different translations.

But anyhow, even if "Mighty God" was the right translation, it is still just a NAME given to Jesus and nothing more.  It doesn't in anyway prove that he is the creator of the Universe.  Many people as shown above were given the misleading "Godly" titles before Jesus.


Did Jesus ever claim to be "Mighty God" or "God"?

From Sheikh Ahmed Deedat's work; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

Let us look at John 10:30 "I (Jesus) and the Father are One."  This verse is  severely misunderstood and is taken out of context, because beginning at verse John 10:23 we read (in the context of 10:30) about Jesus talking to the Jews. In verse John 10:28-30, talking about his followers as his sheep, he states: "...Neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. My Father who gave them me, is greater than all, and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. I and the Father are One."

These verses prove only that Jesus and the Father are one in that no man can pluck the sheep out of either's hand. It does not at all state that Jesus is God's equal in everything. In fact the words of Jesus, " My Father, who gave them me is Greater than ALL...,"  in John 10:29 completely negates this claim, otherwise we are left with a contradiction just a sentence apart. All includes everyone even Jesus. 

Also let us look at verse John 17:20-22 "That the ALL may be made ONE. Like thou Father art in me, I in thee, that they may be ONE in us. I in them, they in me, that they may be perfect in ONE".  In this verse, the same word ONE used, the Greek, HEN is used, not only to describe Jesus and the Father but to describe Jesus, the Father and eleven of the twelve disciples of Jesus. So here if that implies equality, we have a unique case of 13 Gods.

Of the verse in question, "I and the Father are One" in (John 10:30), we also need to take note of the verses following the 30th verse in the text. In those verses, the Jews accuse Jesus falsely of claiming to be God by these words. He however replies, proving their accusation wrong by their own text: "The Jews answered him saying,'For a good work we stone thee not, but for blasphemy, and because that thou being a man, makest thyself a God '" (John 10:33).  

Jesus replies to this accusation saying: "Jesus answered them, 'Is it not written in your Law, "I said ye are gods. If He can call them gods, unto whom the word of God came, say ye of him whom the Father hath sanctified and sent into the world, "Thou blasphemeth," because I said I am the son of God?'" (John 10:34-36).

Let us look at Acts 2:22 "O you men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a MAN approved of God among you..."  Peter in the Book of Acts testifies about Jesus.  Jesus thus even to his disciples, as to early Christians, not poisoned by Pauline doctrine, was a man, not a God.

Question: In John 10:30 Jesus says, "I and the Father are one [hen]." Doesn't this show that they are one in essence?

This statement does not suggest either a dual or triune deity. What John's Jesus meant by the word hen ("one") becomes clear from his prayer concerning the apostles: "That they may be one [hen], just as we are one [hen]" (John 17:22), which means that they should be united in agreement with one another as he (Jesus) is always united in agreement with God, as stated: "I [Jesus] always do the things that are pleasing to Him [God]" (John 8:29).
There is thus no implication that Jesus and God, or the twelve apostles are to be considered as of one essence.


Questions to you

From the names above, do you honestly think that "Strong God", "Yahweh is Strong God", "Yahweh Saves", "God", "Yahweh", "My God is He", "God is Salvation", "Jehovah is Great" and "Mighty God" have much differences in their meanings?

I mean, why consider Jesus as GOD Himself, which is a great blasphemy, when he was given a normal "Godly" title that was given to others before him?

If Jesus was named "Jehovah is Great (Gedaliah)" for instance, then we would see Trinitarian Christians trying their best to prove that he is GOD Almighty Himself.   Why then not consider the people who were named "Gedaliah" before and after Jesus as GOD Almighty Himself also?  Why not consider these people divine as well?

Important Note: So if Jesus was named "Michael or Mike (who is like God)", then we would see Trinitarian Christians claim that he is GOD Almighty, since Exodus 8:10 clearly states that there is non like GOD, and yet Jesus (Mike) is like GOD which would without a doubt make him GOD.  

This is the type of false interpretations and conclusions that Trinitarian Christians fall into.

Very Important Note: The reason why the foretold person would be regarded as "Mighty God" is not because he will be GOD Almighty Himself.  His name or title being "Mighty God" is nothing but a way to show that the person will be very important and very powerful.  He will be like a God on earth because of his Might.  I must emphasize that again, the person's "NAME" will be called "Mighty God".  Isaiah 9:6 never said that the person will be GOD Almighty Himself, or GOD Almighty will be that person.   The word "NAME" means that the name will be just a (misleading) Godly title as many misleading Godly titles were given to others before and after Jesus peace be upon him in the Bible.  I must also emphasize that in the New Testament, Jesus was not even once called or addressed as "Mighty God" or "God", nor did he ever claim to be "Mighty God" or "God".  So if he were indeed the foretold person in Isaiah 9:6 (which I personally believe he were), then this means that Jesus peace be upon him is not GOD Almighty, but a powerful Messenger of GOD Almighty or someone who has Might that was chosen by GOD Almighty.  The Jews as I mentioned above, believe that the person is Hezekiah and not Jesus.  Either way, the person in Isaiah 9:6 is not GOD Almighty Himself.


Is Jesus the biological Son of GOD?

Trinitarian Christians claim that since Jesus was called "Son of GOD", then this would make him the Creator of the Universe Himself.  This is a great blasphemy, because this belief holds no concrete ground what so ever!.  You do not call someone GOD Almighty Himself from a conclusion, especially when it easily can be refuted.

Many people before Jesus were called "Sons of GOD" in the Bible.  Let us look at few of them:

1- Exodus 4:22 "Thus saith Jehovah, Israel is my son, even my firstborn.Israel was GOD's Son before Jesus since Israel is the "first born".  Does this make Israel divine?

2- Jeremiah 31:9 "I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn."  Ephraim is another name for Israel. 

3- Psalm 2:7 "....Jehovah had said onto me (David), thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee."  Since GOD Almighty chose David to be His begotten Son, does this make David divine too?

The "Son of GOD" title that was given to Jesus wasn't the only title for him.  Jesus was also called "Son of David."  Keep in mind that Jesus came at least 1,000 years after King David.  Jesus was also called "Son of Man".  See Matthew 1:1, Matthew 9:27, Matthew 12:23, Matthew 15:22, Matthew 20:30-31, Matthew 22:42, and many other verses.

Is the Man whom Jesus was called his son (possibly David) divine?  Is David divine since Jesus is his Son?

How come Christian Roman Catholics have created the Theological Science of Maryology, and never created the Theological Science of Davidology?  I mean think about it, if Jesus the "Almighty GOD" was called "Son of David", then shouldn't this make David a divine person, since he is one from the many billions that GOD created in this world?

Jesus was called:

Son of GOD
Son of David
Son of Man

Why consider Jesus as the actual biological Son of GOD, when the same expression was used for King David being Jesus' Father who existed 1,000 years before Jesus?

Why can't "Son of GOD" that was used for Jesus be just an expression just like the "Godly" titles and "Son of GOD" expressions that were used for others before Jesus as well as shown above?



Christians believe in Jesus as GOD Almighty, yet, he never claimed to be GOD.  There is absolutely no concrete base for Trinity.  Just because Jesus was called "Son of God" doesn't also make him GOD.  David was called GOD's BEGOTTEN Son in Psalm 2:7.  Israel was called GOD's first born Son in Exodus 4:22.  There are many other examples for GOD's Sons in the Bible.

All what Christians have are conclusions.  Conclusions come from theories.   Theories are always venerable for disproof.  Have Jesus said "I am your LORD worship me" as GOD said in the Old Testament, then we would have a solid concrete ground.  But as far as I am concerned, Trinity is very weak and bogus! with all respect due to Trinitarian Christians.  Non of GOD's religions (including the New Testament) taught Trinity.  The word "Trinity" doesn't even exist in the Bible!. 

Trinity is a false interpretation that was caused by the unfortunate exaggerating and misleading "Godly" name that was given to Jesus and to others in the Old Jewish Culture.  The only unique title that GOD Almighty had in the Bible that non was ever called (including Jesus) was "Yahweh" or "Jehovah".

Bring me one Bible Verse that directly referred to Jesus as "Yahweh" or "Jehovah" and then I'll consider Trinity to be a valid belief in the Bible.


The Hebrew word "Echad (One)" in the Bible:

Let us look at Mark 12:29 "The First is, "Hear O Israel, the Lord our God is One."  Jesus, according to the source of Christianity, in the records that we have of his sayings, never made a claim to be divine.  In an answer to a question on what the first commandment was, he replied by saying God is One.  Jesus was quoting Deuteronomy 6:4.  Therefore, let us examine the Hebrew of this verse:

"Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one.  (Deuteronomy 6:4)"   Trinitarian Christians claim that this verse states that the LORD is a "compound one"; he is multiple entities or objects combined together forming one GOD.   Here is my response to them: 


Please visit: "Echad" in the Bible means "A Great Absolute One" for GOD Almighty.


Texts referring to GOD as "One, Alone, None Other, None Else".


Mislead Views from Christians regarding the "God" title:  When I debate with Christians about this "God" expression given to Jesus compared to other Prophets and people, they claim that the word "God" with a capital "G" refers to God himself, and the word "god" with small "g" refers to humans.  They also claim that they came to this type of translation from the Greek translation.  Some lies and discrepancies had been inserted into the Bible through capitalizing the letter "G" when it is supposed to be a small "g" when referring to Jesus:

The following is from the work of Shiekh Ahmed Deedat; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

Let us look at John 1:1 "In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was God." This is often presented from the Gospel of John to prove that Jesus was God. There are however several problems with this claim:  By this verse it is assumed that Jesus was the "word" and since the word was God and became flesh, Jesus is God. The statement that John reproduced in his gospel however was uttered not by John but by A. Philo of Alexandria, years before Jesus or John were born. It is therefore completely unlikely that Philo was even remotely referring to Jesus.

There is also another reason for not capitalizing the "G" in John 1:1, considering the Greek of the above verse which disproves the assertion that Jesus is referred to as God in the verse. In the verse above, the first time the word God is used, the Greek is HOTHEOS (the same exact word given to Satan as God in 2 Corinthians 4:4. The NIV Bible Author wrote "god" for Satan instead of "God"), which means The God. The second time the word God is used,"....and the word was God," the word for God is TONTHEOS, which means "a god".  Europeans have evolved a system of capital and small letters non-existent in Greek. The God, HOTHEOS is translated as God with a capital G, whereas Tontheos, which means A or ANY God is translated with a small g, god. In this case however, we see the unlawful translators trying to prove Jesus being God by putting capital G for both whereas it doesn't belong in the case of the "word".

So can we trust the current English Translations?  Given that facts above about verse John 1:1, how can we expect from an ordinary English speaking Christian who wants to spread his religion with all his heart honestly and faithfully to understand this lie of capitalizing the small "g" in John 1:1 and other verses, and not capitalizing the capital "M" in the word "mighty" in Psalm 24:8 and the "g" in 2 Corinthians 4:4 (for Satan) for instance?  Must we allow our faith to be all based on what other authors decide to insert from their own personal views into the Bible?  


Is Jesus Immanu-el?

From Sheikh Ahmed Deedat's work; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

Let us look at Isaiah 7:14 "Therefore, the Lord himself will give you a sign, behold a will conceive and bear a child and shall call his name Immanu-el."  It is claimed that this verse was a prophecy about the birth of Jesus to the virgin Mary. It is further claimed that since the word Immanuel means "God with us," the person being talked about, i.e Jesus was God.  The word translated as "virgin" is the wrong translation of the Hebrew word ALMAH. The word ALMAH in Hebrew means "young woman." The correct Hebrew word for virgin is BETHULAH. Since many young women begot children since those words were penned, it is not at all necessary that those words should apply to Jesus.

Another fact that is often ignored is that Jesus was never named Immanuel, nor did anyone ever address him as Immanuel when he lived. On the contrary, the Messiah was named Jesus (Luke 2:21) by the angel according to the gospels. Also, even if a person is named Immanuel, it doesn't mean that the person so named is God.  Consider for example all the people named ELI in the Old Testament. ELI means God in the Hebrew. It is also narrated that Jesus while talking to God referred to Him as ELI (Mark 15:34 & Matthew 27:46). We cannot however on this basis of just name accept all the people named ELI in the Old Testament as Gods. Similarly, we cannot accept a person named Immanuel (God with us) as God. Jesus was never named Immanuel anyway, so both ways the argument and claim are false.


What did Jesus say about GOD?

In Matthew 24:36 Jesus told his followers that no one (including Jesus) knows when the judgment day will come; Only GOD knows. Jesus's followers wanted to know when the Judgment day will come.

In John 14:28 "The Father is greater than I."

In John 10:29 "My Father is greater than ALL."

In John 5:30 "I can of mine own self do NOTHING.....I seek not my own will but the will of Him who sent me."  Jesus was sent in this verse by his own admission. In this verse he himself says that the one who is sent: "..... the one who is sent is not greater than the one who sent (John 13:16)."


Thomas is misunderstood  in verse John 20:28:

From Sheikh Ahmed Deedat's work; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

It is often claimed that since Thomas referred to Jesus as "My God, my Lord (John 20:28)," that Jesus was God. An ignorance of the context of the verse and of Christian doctrine prompts this claim.  The context of the verse talks about an unbelieving Thomas being surprised when Jesus offers him evidence.
The exclamation, "My God," on his part was just astonishment. We use such exclamations everyday while talking to people. This doesn't mean that the person we are talking to is God. For example, I see John cutting his wrist with a Rambo knife. I say: "My God, John what are you doing?" Do I mean that John is God? Of course not. Similar is the use of the expression by Thomas. If you go into Jewish or Muslim societies even today, you'll hear people exclaim "My God, my Lord," at every situation which surprises them or causes them anguish or is astonishing.  In the verse above Thomas says: "My God, my Lord." He was not claiming that Jesus was his (1) God and (2) Lord. If he did then the church and the disciples should have stamped him as a heretic right there and then.  Because claiming that Jesus is Lord and God is a violation of Christian doctrine, which asserts that there is One God, the Father and One Lord, Jesus. Jesus can't be God and Lord.  "...yet for us there is but one God, the Father...and one Lord, Jesus Christ ...(I Corinthians 8:6)".  Believing the above (i.e Jesus is Lord and God) would leave a person with unorthodox doctrine branded by the church as Sabellianism, Patripassianism, Monarchianism.


Jesus saying "I am":  

From Sheikh Ahmed Deedat's work; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

It is claimed that Jesus used the words, "I am", and since these same words were used by God to describe Himself to the people in the Old Testament, Jesus was claiming to be God. John 8:58, is presented to back this claim. In the verse, Jesus says: " Before Abraham was I am. (John 8:58)"  Now, if Jesus existed before Abraham did, that might be a remarkable thing, but does that prove that he was God?

How many people existed before Abraham? The Bible presents Jeremiah as being a prophet before he was conceived in his mother's womb (Jeremiah 1:5), yet no one says that his pre-human existence qualifies him for deity.  In Exodus chapter 3, God allegedly says: "I am what I am." Long before the time of Jesus, there existed a Greek translation of the Old Testament called the Septuagint. The key word, "I am," in Exodus which is used by Christians to prove the deity of Jesus is translated as "HO ON." However, when Jesus uses the word in John 8:58 the Greek of the "I am," is EGO EIMI. If Jesus wanted to tell the Jews that he was claiming to be God he should have at least remained consistent in the use of words or the whole point is lost. How many people in that age would have said "I am," in answer to questions in everyday life. Billions. Are they all gods? Of course not !.


Jesus claiming to be the "Alpha and the Omega":


Question : In the Book of Revelation we find the verse, "I am the Alpha and the Omega, says the Lord God, who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty" (Revelation 1:8). But what do you do with Revelation 22:13, which appears to be Jesus speaking (see verse 16), when he says, "I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end"? Doesn't the command by Matthew's Jesus to, "Go therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit" (Matthew 28:19) show the existence of a triune deity.

Answer: Despite the distinctiveness with which God and Jesus are regarded in the New Testament some Christians are under the misconception that God and Jesus form two-thirds of a triune deity. Partial responsibility for this error is due to the New Testament writers, who use a number of designations for Jesus, which are the same as those given to God in the Jewish Bible and in the New Testament. The resulting confusion as to whether certain New Testament passages refer to God or to Jesus helped to produce the belief in a triune god.
That Jesus, who is considered by the New Testament writers to be the link between God and creation, is called by some of the same designations that are applied to God is understandable. After all, the New Testament writers believed that God had conferred a tremendous amount of power upon this angelic being, so why not, as well, some of His names, which express certain facets of His being? But it is nevertheless clear that although the God of the New Testament interacts with the world He created solely through His "firstborn" (Colossians 1:15-17), the latter is still subservient to God. Because of the exalted yet subservient position in which they envision Jesus, the New Testament writers do not believe it compromises God's status to apply some of His names to Jesus (cf. Ephesians 1:21, Philippians 2:9, Hebrews 1:4). The use of common names is not intended to indicate that Jesus is of one substance with God.

Perhaps, if "the Alpha and the Omega" in Revelations 22:13 is actually a reference to Jesus it stems from the New Testament belief that the pre-incarnate Jesus was the first thing created by God. What is significant is not so much the use of this name as the fact that whenever the relationship between God and Jesus is treated, the New Testament writers always describe God as superior to Jesus.

In any case, in verse 12 the subject of verse 13 ("the Alpha and the Omega") says he is "coming quickly." Since Jesus has not come "quickly" this is either false prophecy or the text is not speaking about Jesus.


GOD says "Let us create".... in the book of Genesis:  (Does "us" mean GOD and Jesus?)

It is unfortunate that Trinitarians try their best to try to prove that Jesus was GOD himself even if the cost is corrupting the real meanings of the Old Testament. In Hebrew, Arabic and Aramaic, the word "us" can be used to magnify a person.  If a Chief Executive Officer of a company in the Middle East wants to say for instance "I decided to do the following....", then he would say it "We decided to do the following...." even though he would be referring to himself only.  

If the word "us" in the book of Genesis is referring to Trinity as Trinitarians believe, then how come people back then were not Trinitarians?  How come the concept of Trinity was born 2300 years after the book of Genesis?  More than 1/3 of The Holy Quran (The Muslims' Holy Book) talks about Allah Almighty (GOD).  Allah Almighty in numerous verses says "We" about himself.  Muslims today believe in One GOD and don't believe in Trinity.  Jews also believe in One GOD and not in Trinity, even though in their Holy Books such as the Talmud, GOD refers to Himself as "We" and not "I".

My dear friend, you must first study the languages of Hebrew, Arabic and Aramaic before you (as a Trinitarian) start corrupting the Old Testament's real meanings.   I think this would be a sin !. 

Further more regarding GOD using the word "Us" in the Bible:


Question : God said: "Let us make man in our image . . ." (Genesis 1:26) and "Come, let us go down, and there confound their language" (Genesis 11:7). To whom does the "us" refer?

Answer: Trinitarian Christians maintain that Genesis 1:26 and Genesis 11:7 are prooftexts of an alleged tri-unity god, but this claim is erroneous. The inference that "Let us make man in our image" (Genesis 1:26) refers to the plurality of God is refuted by the subsequent verse, which relates the creation of man to a singular God, "And God created man in His image" (Genesis 1:27). In this verse the Hebrew verb "created" appears in the singular form. If "let us make man" indicates a numerical plurality, it would be followed in the next verse by, "And they created man in their image." Obviously, the plural form is used in the same way as in the divine appellation 'Elohim, to indicate the all-inclusiveness of God's attributes of authority and power, the plurality of majesty. It is customary for one in authority to speak of himself as if he were a plurality. Hence, Absalom said to Ahithophel, "Give your counsel what we shall do" (2 Samuel 16:20). The context shows that he was seeking advice for himself' yet he refers to himself as "we" (see also Ezra 4:16-19).


What does "Jesus" mean? does it mean "God saves" as Christians claim?

The answer was given to me by Nick.  He is Jewish and speaks Hebrew fluently.

Jesus ( Yeshua ) means in Hebrew "salvation" and not "God saves" .
Yud Shin Waw Ain - this name dosn't include the word "God" .

Joshua ( Yehoshya ) - Yod Hey - Waw Shin Ain
Isaya ( Yeshayah ) - Yod Shin Ain - Yod Hey .

These two names are combination of Yod, Shin, Ain - salvation and Yod, Hey - Yahwe.

Yosh Hey ( Yah ) is common short from Yahwe, for example Alleluia comes from "Halelu Yah" - "Glorify Yahwe".

Let us look at Exodus 7:1 "Consequently Jehovah said to Moses:  See, I have made you like God to Pharaoh and Aaron your brother will become your Prophet." There are two important things in this verse, first Moses was called "like God" and second Moses had a Prophet or Messenger.  It is clear from this verse that God in the Bible used glorifying expressions to magnify someone.  Of course Moses being called like God doesn't make him a holy person.  Moses according to the Bible was a murderer and a sinful person for a period of time, and the God of the Bible still chose to call him "like God", which clearly shows that "God" is only a magnifying title.  The only unique title to God is Jehovah in the Bible.  Also, it is commonly known that Prophets and Messengers are sent only by Jehovah or Allah Almighty and only belong to him.  In Exodus 7:1 we see that Moses not only became "like God", but he also owned a Prophet or Messenger. Of course Moses was never GOD himself.  This verse only used an expression to magnify Moses.  

Let us also look at 1 Corinthians 8:5 "For even though there are those (people) who are called gods, whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many gods and many lords."  This verse clearly shows us that we must not take the word "god" that is used for a human being as actual God or Jehovah or Allah Almighty.  

Let us look at Psalms 82:6 "I myself (Jehovah) have said:  You are gods and all of you are sons of the Most High."  Here we see that Jehovah or Allah Almighty called other Prophets "Gods" and his "Sons".  Does that make them Jehovah himself just because they were called Gods?  Of course not.

Let us look at Psalms 82:1 "God is stationing himself in the assembly of the Divine One; In the middle of gods he judges."  Here we see that God will judge his own Gods in the day of judgment.  Again, the word "god" is just a magnifying expression when given to people.  It doesn't mean the actual GOD himself.

Let us look at Jeremiah 51:57 "And I (Jehovah) will make her Princes and her wise ones, her governors and her deputy rulers and her mighty men drunk...." Here we see that the word "Mighty" was used to magnify men.  It is the same word that is used to magnify God.  We can clearly see in this verse that the word "Mighty" is just a magnifying expression that is not always used for GOD or Jehovah.

Let us also look at Joshua 6:2 "And Jehovah went on to say to Joshua:  See, I have given Jericho and it's king, the valiant mighty men, into your hand." Again, here we see the word "mighty" used for magnifying men and not God.

Let us look at Hebrew 1:3 "He (Jesus) is the reflection of (GOD's) glory and the exact representation of his very being, and he sustains all things by the word of his power; and after he had made a purification for our sins he sat down on the right hand of the Majesty in lofty places."  Of course Jesus was GOD's reflection.  Muslims and Christians agree that Jesus was GOD's spirit (but not GOD himself), and GOD's favorite creation.  Allah Almighty chose Jesus to be his favorite messenger and he was GOD's favorite creation.  Jesus represented GOD very well, and he was GOD's ambassador to his people.  Christians often confuse Jesus's favorite place in GOD's heart with GOD himself.  Jesus was the King of Kings and the Lord of Lords, he had the Majesty place in heaven.

Also again, let us look at John 1:14 "So the word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth."  This verse was explained earlier in this page.  Here we see that Jesus and GOD are two different entities or beings.  Jesus was glorious, GOD's favorite son (creation, not actual biological son as explained earlier in this page), GOD's messenger, but he was never GOD himself.

Let us look at John 1:18 "No man has seen GOD at anytime; the only-begotten GOD who is in the bosom (position) with the Father is the that has explained him."  Here we see Jesus telling his followers that no one has seen GOD.  This verse also proves that Jesus is not GOD.


Now in Isaiah 9:6 "......Eternal Father,....."

Jesus being called Eternal Father means that he will be the light and the way to his followers.  He will bring life to them.  He is going to be their leader, and their spiritual guidance.  This is all done through the Holy Spirit that was explained earlier.  

Let us look at 1 Corinthians 15:22 "For just as in Adam all are dying, so also in the Christ all will be made alive."  Here we see that Jesus is indeed the Eternal Father (leader) to his people.  He is life that never dies to his followers.  

Let us look at Romans 6:23 "For the wages sin pays is death, but the gift GOD gives is everlasting life by Christ Jesus our Lord."  Here again we see Jesus being the everlasting life to his followers.  He is their Eternal Father.

Let us look at 1 Corinthians 6:15 "Do you not know that your bodies are members of Christ?  Shall I, then, take the members of the Christ away and make them members of a harlot?  Never may that happen!"  Here we see that because Jesus is the "Eternal Father" to his people, they are called members of Christ.  Jesus chose to call his followers members of Christ.  He was the King of Kings, and the Lord of Lords.  However, this verse just like all of the above verses proves that Jesus is not Allah Almighty.

VERY IMPORTANT NOTE:  Did you know that in the languages of Arabic and Hebrew the father of the house can be called the Lord of the house?  Jesus was the Lord (father or leader) of his people and their father.  For Jesus being the leader and the king, it is normal for him to be called the father of his people (Father in Isaiah 9:6).  My own father is my Lord in the languages of Arabic, Aramaic and Hebrew.



I hope that I was able to help you notice that the Bible uses titles such as God, King, Lord, and Prince to so many people on so many occasions.  Many people before and after Jesus were named "Godly" names such as "Jehovah is Great (Gedaliah)" and the many others that were shown above.  We as intelligent readers and truth seekers must not take everything in the Bible so literal.  It is wrong, and misleading to do so.  We have to watch out from dangerous misleading "Godly" titles that are given to people throughout the Bible.  It's unfortunate that such titles are used in the Bible to magnify and glorify people.  It certainly had caused so much confusion among Christians, and human beings throughout history, and it is the main reason for today's many divisions and sects in the religion of Christianity.  

The major difference between Christianity and Islam is that in Islam, there is no mediator between you and your Creator, which makes perfect sense!  In Christianity, believing in the Almighty GOD alone is not enough.  It won't save you. You must believe in Jesus dying for your sins to be a Christian, and to be then saved.

This whole theory however is based on a Bible that is for the most part extremely doubtful. Please visit Just who were the real authors of the Bible? to see it for yourself.  The Gospels and Books of today are not reliable and no one knows who in the world wrote them.  I have actual quotes from the NIV Bible's commentary admitting to the historical corruption of the Bible.

So to base a dangerous belief such as "Trinity" on doubtful book like this is very dangerous for you.  Especially when knowing that the word "Trinity" doesn't even exist in the Bible.  I mean, if "Trinity" is supposed to be the central and the back bone for Christianity and for defining the deity of GOD, then don't you think that it should at least exist once in the Bible?

Otherwise, if I were to take your interpretations, that GOD is multiple entities in One, then GOD can't just be three. He could be 2 (father and son only), or three (father, son, and holy spirit or ghost), or even four (as the bible never really gave any specific number for this hoax theory of GOD being multiple gods in one).

Please spare yourself from giving me 1John 5:7 as a proof for trinity, because this verse was proven to be a satanic lie inserted into the bible.  This is something discovered and proven by Christian theologians themselves and most of the bibles of today don't have that verse in them. Please visit The lie of 1John 5:7.

Allah Almighty said in the Holy Quran (The Muslims Holy Book): "Indeed they reject the truth, those that say "God is Christ, the son of Mary." For indeed, Christ said, worship God, who is my God and your God." (The Holy Quran, 5:72).

I would like to take this opportunity to thank you very much for taking the time to read my paper.  I wish it was helpful and useful for you in your journey in seeking and learning about the truth of the Almighty God.  May God bless you all the way.


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